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Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Input Unit

This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Input Unit”.

CLASS–ONE

1. Which unit is responsible for converting the data received from the user into a computer understandable format?
a) Memory Unit
b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Input Unit converts the data, which the user enters into a language which the computer understands, i.e. it converts the data into binary format. The Output Unit is responsible for giving the results in user-understandable format. The Storage Unit is responsible for storing the data after immediate results of processing whereas; the ALU is responsible for various arithmetic and bitwise operations.

2. The only language which the computer understands is ______________
a) Assembly Language
b) Binary Language
c) BASIC
d) C Language
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Computer understands only binary language which is written in the form of 0s & 1s. A computer can understand assembly language but an assembler is required which converts the assembly language to binary language. Similarly, for understanding high level languages, compilers/interpreters are required.

3. The smallest unit of data in computer is ________________
a) Byte
b) Nibble
c) Bit
d) KB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A bit is defined as the smallest unit of data in a computer system. It is used as a short form of Binary Digit. A bit can have only two values 0 or 1. A nibble comprises of 4 bits, a byte is a collection of 8 bits whereas KB (Kilobyte) is equal to 1024 bytes.

4. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 1
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A nibble is defined as a unit of data which comprises of 4 binary digits or half of 8-bit byte. Therefore, 1 nibble = 4 bits. A bit is the smallest unit of data in a computer system. A byte = 8 bits, therefore, half of a byte=4 bits=a nibble.

5. Which of the following describes the correct format of an input instruction?
a) IN 82
b) INPUT 82
c) INP 82
d) 82 INP
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The input/output instructions are used to transfer information between external peripherals and the CPU. The correct format of an input instruction is: IN 8-bit port address.
Here, IN 82 is the correct option, where 82 is the designated port address. All the other options are invalid.

6. The input machine which originated in the United States around 1880s is a ___________
a) Mouse
b) Joystick
c) Keyboard
d) Bar Code Reader
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A keyboard is an input device which originated in the 1880s and is used to give instructions to the computer in the form of letters and numbers. Mouse is used for the selection of various objects on the screen, joystick is mainly used for gaming purpose and bar code readers are used for reading the bar-codes.

7. What does the COMPUTER stand for?
a) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
b) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
c) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Environmental Research
d) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The word COMPUTER is an abbreviation for the terms “Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research”. The word COMPUTER also relates to the word COMPUTE which means to calculate. So, initially it was thought that a computer is a device which is used to perform calculations.

8. 1 yottabyte = ______________
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 1 yottabyte is equal to 1024 ZB, which stands for zettabyte. Further, 1 ZB=1024 EB (exabyte) and and 1 EB=1024PB (petabyte).

9. Which of the following is not a function of the Input Unit?
a) It reads instructions and data from the outside world
b) It converts the data into computer acceptable format
c) It makes the data into user understandable format
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The input unit converts the data into computer understandable format i.e. binary format and not the user understandable format. It is the duty of the output unit to make the data into user understandable format.

10. Label the parts 1 and 2:
computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-input-unit-q10
a) 1.ALU 2. MU
b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit
c) 1.MU 2. ALU
d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The above diagram is a simple explanation which describes how the instruction is given to the CPU, how it is processed, and then how the result is obtained.
So here, the input unit is used to give instructions to the central processing unit and the output unit is responsible for giving the result to the user.


CLASS -TWO

Computer Fundamentals(MCQs)

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Output Unit

This set of Computer Fundamentals Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “The Output Unit”.

1. The process of producing useful information for the user is called ___________
a) Controlling
b) Outputting
c) Inputting
d) Processing
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Output Unit is responsible for giving the results to the user in the form of a printed report or visual display. The process is referred to as outputting. Controlling is nothing but the manner and sequence in which the instructions are being operated. Inputting means giving instructions to the system whereas, processing means performing certain operations and calculations.

2. The output unit converts the data entered by the user into computer understandable form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Output unit is responsible for converting the computer obtained data into user understandable format. The Input Unit is responsible for converting the data in computer understandable format.

3. VDU stands for __________
a) Virtual Display Unit
b) Visual Display Unit
c) Virtual Detection Unit
d) Visual Detection Unit
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A Visual Display unit is also referred to as the monitor who basically is used to give the results or outputs to the user. It comprises of a cathode ray tube internally.

4. What does SVGA stand for?
a) Standard Visual Graphics Array
b) Super Visual Graphics Array
c) Standard Video Graphics Array
d) Super Video Graphics Array
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Super Video Graphics Array is a type of Visual Display Unit. It supports 1024 by 768 pixels with 60,000 different colors.

5. The devices that used to give single or multiple colored images and drawings are ____________
a) Monitors
b) Printers
c) Plotters
d) VDUs
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Plotters are the devices which are used to give colored images. They use ink pens or ink jets for drawing. Pens of different colors and shades are used for shading and styling.

6. A special request originated from some device to the CPU to acquire some of its time is called ___________
a) Disturbance
b) Attenuation
c) Interrupt
d) Noise
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: An interrupt is a kind of request which takes control of the system bus for some time, then performs all the operations and gives back control to the CPU. It is usually identified by some number and is handled by the interrupt controller.

7. Line Printers that print one line at a time are _________
a) Laser Printers
b) Inkjet Printers
c) Drum Printers
d) Chain Printers
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The drum printers have a solid cylindrical drum with characters embossed on its surface in the form of circular bands. It can only print a predefined set of characters.

8. A ___________________ monitor looks like a television and are normally used with non-portable computer systems.
a) CRT
b) LCD
c) LED
d) Flat Panel Monitors
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A CRT (or the Cathode Ray Tube) Monitor looks like a television ideally. The flat panel monitors are thinner and lighter in comparison.

9. Which of the following is not a function of the Output Unit?
a) It produces results that can be easily understood by the user
b) It accepts the results produced by the computer
c) It supplies the data and instructions to the outside world
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The output unit is responsible for giving the results to the user in the form of a printed report or visual display. It is not responsible for giving the instructions back to the CPU for processing.

10. PCI stands for _________
a) Peripheral Component Interconnect
b) Partial Component Interconnect
c) Peripheral Component Interaction
d) Partial Component Interaction
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: PCI is a high-bandwidth bus that can function as a peripheral bus. Compared with others, it delivers better system performance.


CLASS-THREE

Computer Fundamentals(MCQs)

 

Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Storage Unit

This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Storage Unit”.

1. Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are ______
a) Registers
b) Program Counters
c) Controllers
d) Internal chips
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Registers are the fast storage units. They are responsible for storing intermediate computational results in the CPU. The registers can be user accessible or inaccessible.

2. Saving data and instructions to make them readily available is the job of __________
a) Storage Unit
b) Cache Unit
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The storage unit is responsible for storing the data. It makes the instructions readily available for additional or initial processing whenever required. The cache is a software component that stores data to serve the data requests in future. It can contain the result of some earlier computations.

3. The two basic types of memory in a computer are ________
computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-arithmetic-logic-unit-q3
a) Primary and major
b) Primary and Secondary
c) Minor and Major
d) Main and virtual
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of memories in a computer system: The Primary Memory and the Secondary Memory.
The primary memory can be directly accessed by the CPU whereas the secondary memory cannot be directly accessed.

4. Which of the following is used to hold running program instructions?
a) Primary Storage
b) Virtual Storage
c) Internal Storage
d) Minor Devices
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The primary storage is responsible for holding the data, intermediate results and the results of ongoing processes or jobs. Virtual storage is the main memory storage required for saving a large amount of data for future reference. The other options are invalid.

5. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?
a) Backup
b) Secondary
c) Primary
d) Cache
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The secondary storage is the non-volatile storage unit because the data is not lost when the power supply is dissipated. Primary memory is the volatile memory.

6. Which of the following is used in main memory?
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) PRAM
d) DDR
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: DRAM stands for dynamic random access memory. It is denser than SDRAM (Static) and therefore it is used in the main memory. They are in the form of semiconductor RAMs.

7. Which of the following are types of ROMs?
a) SROM & DROM
b) PROM & EPROM
c) Only one type there is no further classification
d) PROM & EROM
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of Read Only Memories: PROM i.e., Programmable ROM & EPROM i.e., Erasable Programmable ROM. When only a small number of ROMs with a particular memory content is needed, PROM is used and in case of EPROM, all the contents of the storage cells must be erased before the write operation.

8. RAID stands for __________
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of individual disks
c) Reusable Array of independent disks
d) Reusable array of individual disks
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: RAID is a multiple-disk database design which is viewed as a single logical disk by the operating system. Data are distributed across the physical drives of the array. It guarantees the recovery of data in case of data failure.

9. A non-erasable disk that stores digitized audio information is _____
a) CD
b) CD-ROM
c) DVD-R
d) DVD-RW
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A compact disk stores digitized audio information. The standard system uses 12 cm disks and can record more than 60 minutes of uninterrupted playing game.

10. The first practical form of Random Access Memory was the __________
a) SSEM
b) Cathode Ray Tube
c) William’s Tube
d) Thomas’s Tube
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The first practical form of RAM was William’s Tube made in 1947. It stored data as electrically charged spots on the face of a Cathode Ray Tube.


Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Arithmetic & Logic Unit(MCQs)

This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Arithmetic & Logic Unit”.

1. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs many different operations _____________
a) Arithmetic and logic unit
b) Motherboard
c) Control Unit
d) Memory
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Arithmetic and logic unit performs all the basic operations of the computer system. It performs all the arithmetic(+,-,*,/,etc) as well as the logical operations( AND, OR, NOT, etc.).

2. ALU is the place where the actual executions of instructions take place during the processing operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: ALU is a combinational electronic circuit which basically performs all the logical or the bitwise operations and the arithmetic operations. Therefore, it is the place where the actual executions of instructions take place.

3. Which of the following is not a bitwise operator?
a) |
b) ^
c) .
d) <<
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: All except the dot(.) operator are bitwise operators.
| : Bitwise OR
^ : Bitwise XOR
<< : Shift Left

4. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is __________
a) 0001
b) 1110
c) 1000
d) 1001
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The first leftmost bit i.e. the most significant bit in the sign magnitude represents if the number is positive or negative. If the MSB is 1, the number is negative else if it is 0, the number is positive. Here, +1=0001 and for -1=1001.

5. IEEE stands for ___________
a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering
b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers
c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers
d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The IEEE is an organization of professionals in the field of electronics and electrical engineering. IEEE has given certain standards of its own which are followed in the field of computer science and electrical engineering.

6. The ALU gives the output of the operations and the output is stored in the ________
a) Memory Devices
b) Registers
c) Flags
d) Output Unit
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Any output generated by the ALU gets stored in the registers. The registers are the temporary memory locations within the processor that are connected by signal paths to the CPU.

7. The process of division on memory spaces is called ______________
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Bifurcation
d) Dynamic Division
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The memory space is divided into segments of dynamic size. The programmer is aware of the segmentation and can reallocate the segments accordingly.

8. Number of bits in ALU is _________
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 2
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Arithmetic and Logic Unit consists of 16bits. They perform certain Arithmetic and bitwise operations (add, subtract, AND, OR, XOR, Increment, decrement, shift).

9. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that results from an operation?
a) Zero
b) Parity
c) Auxiliary
d) Carry
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The parity flag indicates the number of 1 bit in any operation. The resultant bit is called the parity bit. The main aim of the parity bit is to check for errors.

10. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________
a) 00000001
b) 10000000
c) 11111111
d) 11111110
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Bitwise complement is basically used to convert all the 0 digits to 1 and the 1s to 0s.
So, for 0 = 00000000(in 8-bits) ::: 11111111(1s complement). The bitwise complement is often referred to as the 1s complement.


Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers – The Control Unit

This set of Computer Fundamentals Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “The Control Unit”.

1. ____________ is the raw material used as input and __________ is the processed data obtained as output of data processing.
a) Data, Instructions
b) Instructions, Program
c) Data, Program
d) Program, Code
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Data can be assumed as a raw material which, in turns after processing gives the desired output in the form of instructions. Further, a set of ordered and meaningful instructions is known as a program.

2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a computer?
a) Diligence
b) I.Q.
c) Accuracy
d) Versatility
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Computer system has no I.Q. of its own. It does only what it is programmed to do. It cannot take decisions of its own.
A computer is diligent because it can work continuously for hours without getting any errors or without getting grumbled.
The accuracy of a computer is consistently high and its level of accuracy depends on its design. A computer can perform any task if, it can be broken down into a series of logical steps. Therefore, a computer is versatile.

3. Fill in the blank in the diagram.
computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-control-unit-q3
a) Input Unit
b) Memory Unit
c) Control Unit
d) I/O Unit
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The control unit manages and coordinates the operations of a computer system. The ALU is responsible for performing all the arithmetic and bitwise operations . Therefore, both these units combine to form the brain of the computer ,which is the central processing unit.

4. The part of a processor which contains hardware necessary to perform all the operations required by a computer:
a) Data path
b) Controller
c) Registers
d) Cache
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A processor is a part of the computer which does all the data manipulation and decision making. A processor comprises of:
A data path which contains the hardware necessary to perform all the operations. A controller tells the data path what needs to be done.
The registers act as intermediate storage for the data.

5. What does MAR stand for?
a) Main Address Register
b) Memory Access Register
c) Main Accessible Register
d) Memory Address Register
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: MAR is a type of register which is responsible for the fetch operation. MAR is connected to the address bus and it specifies the address for the read and write operations.

6. If the control signals are generated by combinational logic, then they are generated by a type of _______________ controlled unit.
a) Micro programmed
b) Software
c) Logic
d) Hardwired
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The main task of a control unit is to generate control signals. There are two main types of control units:
A hardwired control unit generates control signals by using combinational logic circuits and the Micro programmed control unit generates control signals by using some softwares.

7. Which is the simplest method of implementing hardwired control unit?
a) State Table Method
b) Delay Element Method
c) Sequence Counter Method
d) Using Circuits
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are 3 ways of implementing hardwired control unit:
A state table is the simplest method in which a number of circuits are designed based on the cells in the table.
A delay element method consists of a flowchart drawn for the circuit. A D-flip flop is used as a delay element.
A sequence counter method used k-modulo counter as a replacement for k delay elements.

8. A set of microinstructions for a single machine instruction is called ___________
a) Program
b) Command
c) Micro program
d) Micro command
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: For every micro-operation, a set of microinstructions are written which indicate the control signals to be activated. A set of microinstructions is a micro program. The address of the next microinstruction is given by a Micro-program counter.

9. Micro-program consists of a set of microinstructions which are strings of 0s and 1s.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The computer understands only binary language. So, the micro-program should have instructions which are in the form of 0s and 1s. Each output line of the micro-program corresponds to one control signal.

10. A decoder is required in case of a ______________
a) Vertical Microinstruction
b) Horizontal Microinstruction
c) Multilevel Microinstruction
d) All types of microinstructions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of microinstructions: Horizontal and Vertical.
In a horizontal microinstruction, each bit represents a signal to be activated whereas, in case of vertical microinstruction bits are decoded and, the decoder then produces signals


Data Structure Questions and Answers – Array and Array Operations

ClASS-ONE

This set of Data Structure Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Array and Array Operations”.

1. Which of these best describes an array?
a) A data structure that shows a hierarchical behavior
b) Container of objects of similar types
c) Container of objects of mixed types
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Array contains elements only of the same type.

2. How do you initialize an array in C?
a) int arr[3] = (1,2,3);
b) int arr(3) = {1,2,3};
c) int arr[3] = {1,2,3};
d) int arr(3) = (1,2,3);
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: This is the syntax to initialize an array in C.

3. How do you instantiate an array in Java?
a) int arr[] = new int(3);
b) int arr[];
c) int arr[] = new int[3];
d) int arr() = new int(3);
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Note that option b is declaration whereas option c is to instantiate an array.

4. Which of the following is a correct way to declare a multidimensional array in Java?
a) int[][] arr;
b) int arr[][];
c) int []arr[];
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are syntactically correct.

5. What is the output of the following piece of code?

public class array
{
	public static void main(String args[])
	{
		int []arr = {1,2,3,4,5};
		System.out.println(arr[2]);
		System.out.println(arr[4]);
	}
}

a) 3 and 5
b) 5 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 4 and 2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Array indexing starts from 0.

6. What is the output of the following piece of code?

public class array
{
	public static void main(String args[])
	{
		int []arr = {1,2,3,4,5};
		System.out.println(arr[5]);
	}
}

a) 4
b) 5
c) ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException
d) InavlidInputException
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Trying to access an element beyond the limits of an array gives ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException.

7. When does the ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException occur?
a) Compile-time
b) Run-time
c) Not an error
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is a run-time exception and the compilation is error-free.

8. Which of the following concepts make extensive use of arrays?
a) Binary trees
b) Scheduling of processes
c) Caching
d) Spatial locality
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a particular memory location is referred, it is likely that the locations nearby are also referred, arrays are stored as contigous blocks in memory, so if you want to access array elements, spatial locality makes it to access quickly.

a) Easier to store elements of same data type
b) Used to implement other data structures like stack and queue
c) Convenient way to represent matrices as a 2D array
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Arrays are simple to implement when it comes to matrices of fixed size and type, or to implement other data structures.

10. What are the disadvantages of arrays?
a) We must know before hand how many elements will be there in the array
b) There are chances of wastage of memory space if elements inserted in an array are lesser than than the allocated size
c) Insertion and deletion becomes tedious
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Arrays are of fixed size, hence during the compile time we should know its size and type, since arrays are stored in contigous locations, insertion and deletion becomes time consuming.

11. Assuming int is of 4bytes, what is the size of int arr[15];?
a) 15
b) 19
c) 11
d) 60
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Since there are 15 int elements and each int is of 4bytes, we get 15*4 = 60bytes.

Top Important MCQs on Database Management System

CLASS-ONE


1.The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database system?

A. Database application and the database
B. Data and the database
C. The user and the database application
D. Database application and SQL

Answer: Option A

2.Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by E.F. Codd of IBM?

A. IDMS
B. DB2
C. dBase-II
D. R:base

Answer: Option B

3.The following are components of a database except ________ .

A. user data
B. metadata
C. reports
D. indexes

Answer: Option C

4.An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n) ________ .

A. single-user database application
B. multiuser database application
C. e-commerce database application
D. data mining database application

Answer: Option A

5.An on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ .

A. single-user database application
B. multiuser database application
C. e-commerce database application
D. data mining database application

Answer: Option C

6.Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC DBMS?

A. IDMS
B. Oracle
C. dBase-II
D. R:base

Answer: Option D

7.SQL stands for ________ .

A. Structured Query Language
B. Sequential Query Language
C. Structured Question Language
D. Sequential Question Language

Answer: Option A

8.Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be ________ .

A. described
B. metadata compatible
C. self-describing
D. an application program

Answer: Option C

9.The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

A. creating and processing forms
B. creating databases
C. processing data
D. administrating databases

Answer: Option A

10.Helping people keep track of things is the purpose of a(n) ________ .

A. database
B. table
C. instance
D. relationship

Answer: Option A

11.Which of the following products implemented the CODASYL DBTG model?

A. IDMS
B. DB2
C. dBase-II
D. R:base

Answer: Option A

12.An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a(n) ________ .

A. single-user database application
B. multiuser database application
C. e-commerce database application
D. data mining database application

Answer: Option B

13.A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ________ .

A. Microsoft’s SQL Server
B. Microsoft’s Access
C. IBM’s DB2
D. Oracle Corporation’s Oracle

Answer: Option B

14.You have run an SQL statement that asked the DBMS to display data in a table named USER_TABLES. The results include columns of data labeled “TableName,” “NumberOfColumns” and “PrimaryKey.” You are looking at ________ .

A. user data.
B. metadata
C. A report
D. indexes

Answer: Option B

15.Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database system?

A. Users
B. Database applications
C. DBMS
D. COBOL programs

Answer: Option D

16.The DBMS that is most difficult to use is ________ .

A. Microsoft’s SQL Server
B. Microsoft’s Access
C. IBM’s DB2
D. Oracle Corporation’s Oracle

Answer: Option D

 

Cyber World

XML and ADO.NET Questions and Answers

This set of XML and ADO.NET Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “XML and ADO.NET”.

CLASS–ONE

1.The XSLT processor copies the elements of the stylesheet until it finds a command in the format:

A. SELECT … FROM … WHERE.
B. {item, action}.
C. {for-each select}.
D. <HTML>…<\HTML>.

Answer: Option B

2.What standard, protocol or language was generalized to become a standard protocol for sending messages of any type, using any protocol?

A. SOAP
B. SGML
C. SQL
D. ADO

Answer: Option A

3.Which of the following statements is not true about XML Schemas:

A. They are used to define the content and structure of data.
B. They define a set of symbols and the relationships of those symbols.
C. They are themselves XML documents.
D. They have their own syntax.

Answer: Option D

4.The most popular way to materialize XML documents is to use:

A. DTD.
B. XSLT.
C. HTML.
D. SOAP.

Answer: Option B

5. With XML:

A. views are not limited to one multi-valued path only.
B. documents can automatically be generated from database data only.
C. database data can automatically be extracted from XML documents only.
D. With XML, all of the above are true.

Answer: Option D

6.To eliminate definition duplication, XML Schemas define:

A. an intersection table.
B. global elements.
C. a normalized definition table.
D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: Option B

7.What is not true about SOAP?

A. SOAP originally meant Simple Object Access Protocol.
B. SOAP was defined as an XML-based standard for providing remote procedure calls over the Internet.
C. SOAP now is just a name, not an acronym
D. SOAP was an early form of XML.

Answer: Option D

8. XML Schemas consist of:

A. properties and methods.
B. elements and attributes.
C. structure and data.
D. tables and relationships.

Answer: Option B

9.The expression FOR XML RAW tells SQL Server to:

A. place the values of the columns as attributes in the resulting XML document.
B. place the values of the columns into elements rather than attributes.
C. place some columns into elements and others into attributes.
D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: Option A

10.ADO.NET provides the ability to create and process in-memory databases called:

A. views.
B. relations.
C. tables.
D. datasets.

Answer: Option D

11.An XML component that defines the structure of a document is known as a(n):

A. DOCTYPE.
B. DTD.
C. #PCDATA.
D. HTML Stylesheet.

Answer: Option B

12.HTML is an application of a more robust document markup language called:

A. XHTML.
B. XML.
C. SGML.
D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: Option C

13.XSLT processors evaluate each statement in the context of the match that has been made. That is, XSLT processors are:

A. context oriented.
B. procedural oriented.
C. object oriented.
D. relational oriented.

Answer: Option A

14.The DTD begins with the word:

A. #PCDATA.
B. XML.
C. DOCTYPE.
D. HTTPS.

Answer: Option C

15.What is not true about XML?

A. Web page display is the most important application of XML.
B. With XML, there is a clear separation between document structure, content and materialization.
C. XML is more powerful than HTML.
D. XML documents have two sections.

Answer: Option A

16.What is not true about XSLT?

A. XSLT is a declarative transformation language.
B. XSLT uses a set of rules that govern how a document is to be materialized is created.
C. XSLT uses a set of procedures that specify how a document is to be programmed.
D. XSLT is used to transform the input document into another document.

Answer: Option C

17.If the XML data instance conforms to the DTD, the document is said to be:

A. type-invalid.
B. type-valid.
C. not-type-valid.
D. an HTML document.

Answer: Option B

18.XML is:

A. a subset of SGML only.
B. a hybrid of document processing and database processing only.
C. a standardized yet customizable way to describe the content of documents only.
D. XML is all of the above.

Answer: Option D

19.The document that is used by XSLT to indicate how to transform the elements of the XML document to another format is a(n):

A. HTML page.
B. DOCTYPE procedure.
C. stylesheet.
D. stored procedure.

Answer: Option C

20.If an XML document does not have a DTD, then by definition it is:

A. not-type-valid.
B. type-valid.
C. an HTML document.
D. None of the above is correct.

Answer: Option A


My Youtube Classes All Notes at One Place Cyberpoint9 on XML and ADO

Cyber World

Software Engineering(MCQs)

Questions and Answers

CLASS–ONE

Software Engineering Questions and Answers – Software Design

1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
View Answer

Answer: c
2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
View Answer

Answer: d

4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.

5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.

6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
View Answer

Answer: d

8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.

9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.

10. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.

11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.

12. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.


Software Engineering(MCQs)

Questions and Answers

CLASS–TWO

Software Design Question and Answers – Software Engineering Design Method

1. Which of these truly defines Software design ?
a) Software design is an activity subjected to constraints
b) Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product
c) Software Design satisfies client needs and desires
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Software design explains all of the statements as its definition.

2. Which among these is false ?
a) A process is collection of related tasks that transforms set of inputs to set of output
b) A design notation is a symbolic representational system
c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding guidance, with guarantee for achieving some end
d) Software design method is orderly procedure for providing software design solutions
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A heuristic is a rule followed but there is no guarantee that we get output.

3. Which of these describes stepwise refinement ?
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first software engineering method as stepwise refinement
b) Stepwise refinement follows its existence from 1971
c) It is a top down approach
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It is top down approach and not bottom up.

4. What is incorrect about structural design ?
a) Structural design introduced notations and heuristics
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition
c) The advantage is data flow representation
d) It follows Structure chart
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The biggest drawback or problem is data flow diagram of structure design.

5. What is solution for Structural design ?
a) The specification model following data flow diagram
b) Procedures represented as bubbles
c) Specification model is structure chart showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow of data in and out of procedures
d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: It is solution to central problem. Rest others are problems.

6. Which of these are followed by latest versions of structural design?
a) More detailed and flexible processes
b) Regular Notations
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided Software Engineering)
d) Wide support by CASE, More detailed and flexible processes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Notations used are more specialized and sophisticated one.

7. The incorrect method for structural design is?
a) Transition of problem models to solution models
b) Handling of larger and more complex products
c) Designing Object oriented systems
d) More procedural approach
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It does not account for larger and complex products.

8. What are followed by design task?
a) Choosing specific classes, operations
b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All of these tasks are followed by design task.

9. Which of these analysis are not acceptable ?
a) Object oriented design is far better approach compared to structural design
b) Object oriented design always dominates structural design
c) Object oriented design are given more preference than structural design
d) Object oriented uses more specific notations
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Though object oriented design is considered far better approach but it never dominates structural approach.

10. Which these does not represent object oriented design ?
a) It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition
b) Programs are thought of collection of objects
c) Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their relationships to one another
d) Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It does not follow regular procedural decomposition.


Software Design Question and Answers – Software Design Process

This set of Software Design Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Software Design Process”.

1. Software Design consists of ?
a) Software Product Design
b) Software Engineering Design
c) Software Product & Engineering Design
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Software design consists of product and engineering design.

2. Which of these is true ?
a) Analysis – Solving problem
b) Design – Understanding problem
c) Analysis & Design
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Analysis- Understanding problem Resolution – Solving problem.

3. Which of these are followed in case of software design process ?
a) Analysis occurs at start of product design with a product idea
b) Analysis occurs at the end of engineering design with the SRS
c) Product design resolution produces the design document
d) Engineering design resolution produces the SRS
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Only statement one is true rest all are false. Analysis is at start of design, Product design resolution produces SRS.

4. Which of these is not in sequence for generic problem solving strategy ?
a) Understand the problem
b) Generate candidate solutions
c) Iterate if no solution is adequate
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Iteration is done at last stage.

5. Which of these is not in sequence for generic design process ?
a) Analyze the Problem
b) Evaluate candidate solutions
c) Finalize the Design
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Evaluation is followed after Generation of candidate solutions.

6. Why do you think iteration is important for design ?
a) To frequently reanalyze the problem
b) To generate and improve solutions only once for better output
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It has to follow both in order to complete iteration process.

7. What is true about generic software product design process ?
a) It begins with SRS
b) It ends with Product Design Problem
c) Analysis is done and end product is project mission statement
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: It begins with product design problem ends with SRS and starting point is project mission statement, hence all choices are false.

8. Generic software engineering design process defined by which of these steps ?
a) Generic software engineering design process first job after analysis is detailed design
b) Attention is turned later to architectural design
c) Architectural design is not followed by Detailed design
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Following procedure is followed in engineering design process.

9. Which of these is said to be true about resolution process in generic software engineering design process ?
a) Architectural design is low resolution process
b) Detailed design is high resolution process
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Architectural design is high resolution, detailed design is low resolution

10. Which step among these follows wrong sequence in software engineering design process?
a) Analyze problem
b) Generate candidate architecture
c) Finalize design
d) Select detailed design
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Selection of design is followed first later design is finalized.


Software Design Question and Answers – Software Design Management

This set of Software Design Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Software Design Management”.

1. Why there is need for Software management ?
a) Software development is complex and expensive
b) It is done with few people with fixed skills and abilities
c) It is not time consuming
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Software development is carried on with group of people with varying skills.

2. Which of these is wrong in terms of definition ?
a) Planing is formulating scheme for doing project
b) Organizing is directing people doing project work
c) Project is one time effort to achieve a particular goal for organization
d) Staffing is filing the positions in an organizational structure
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Leading is directing people organizing is structuring entities and assigning responsibilities.

3. Which of these is not project development activity ?
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Operating
d) Tracking
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Operating is a business activity in contrast to rest of them.

4. Which of these comes under business activities ?
a) Project
b) Operations
c) Planning
d) Project & Operations
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: planning is development activity and not business activity.

5. Which of these terms have its role in project planning ?
a) Schedule
b) Milestone
c) Estimation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All of these have its role for planning.

6. What fails a project ?
a) Lack of anticipation of resources to accomplish tasks
b) Problems faced by rules governing project
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Both the issues fails the project

7. What makes tracking activity more essential ?
a) No need to follow rules
b) It schedules, estimates and follows resource allocation
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: It revisits and follows rules.
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8. What are decompositions for design project ?
a) Analysis : Design Problem
b) Resolution : Product specifications
c) Resolution : Detailed design
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A Design project is decomposed to all of these.

9. Risk Analysis is an orderly process for ?
a) Identification of Risks
b) Understanding Risks
c) Assessing Risks
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Risk analysis follows all of these.

10. Why is Design a Driving Activity ?
a) Design work extends from start of development to coding
b) The two major products of designs are SRS and design document
c) Design extends to project management
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Design is said to be driving factor, because of all of these reasons.

Computer Networks Questions & Answers (MCQs)

Top 10 Most Important MCQs For Computer Science and Engenering.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

                                                    CLASS-ONE

1. The first Network
a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research Projects Agency Networks was the first network to be implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol.

2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer.

3. The structure or format of data is called
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation.

4. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission
a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data flows in single direction.

5. The IETF standards documents are called
a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The basic formal definition of the IETF standards process is RFC 2026 (BCP 9). However, this document has been amended several times. The intellectual property rules are now separate, in RFC 5378 (BCP 78) (rights in contributions) and RFC 3979 (BCP 79) (rights in technology).

6. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels
a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Message travel from sender to reciever via a medium using a protocol.

7. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal Communications Commission. FCC is responsible for regulating all interstate communications originating or terminating in USA.

8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host systems, which can host applications like web browser.

9. A set of rules that governs data communication
a) Protocols
b) Standards
c) RFCs
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a set of rules and regulations that allow a network of nodes to transmit and receive information.

10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ connection
a) Unipoint
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established when three or many network nodes are connected to each other.


Computer Networks Questions & Answers (MCQs)

Top 10 Most Important MCQs For Computer Science and Engenering.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

                                                CLASS- TWO

1. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called

a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Computer networks is defined as a collection of interconnected computers which uses a single technology for connection.
A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main difference is that the whole collection of computers appears to its users as a single coherent system
Example :- World wide web

2. Two devices are in network if
a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a digital telecommunications network which allows nodes to share resources. In computer networks, computing devices exchange data with each other using connections between nodes.

3. Which one of the following computer network is built on the top of another network?
a) prior network
b) chief network
c) prime network
d) overlay network
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of another network.

4. In computer network nodes are
a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be anything that is capable of sending data or receiving data or even routing the data to the destination.

5. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In a broadcast network, an information is sent to all station in a network whereas in a multicast network the data or information is sent to a group of stations in the network. In unicast network, information is sent to only one specific station.

6. Bluetooth is an example of
a) personal area network
b) local area network
c) virtual private network
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is the interconnection of information technology devices within the range of an individual person, typically within a range of 10 meters.

7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
a) bridge
b) firewall
c) router
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet.

8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack
c) protocol suite
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of protocols that are running concurrently that are employed for the implementation of network protocol suite.

9. Network congestion occurs
a) in case of traffic overloading
b) when a system terminates
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than the network could handle.

10. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
a) local area network
b) virtual private network
c) enterprise private network
d) storage area network
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network, and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network.


Digital subscriber line

Digital subscriber line (DSL; originally digital subscriber loop) is a family of technologies that are used to transmit digital data over telephone lines

Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Access Networks (MCQs)

Top 10 Most Important MCQs For Computer Science and Engenering.

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

                                                CLASS- Three

1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone channel.

2. In DSL telco provides these services
a) Wired phone access
b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The same company which provides phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.

3. The function of DSLAM is
a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central Office does this function.

DSLAM:-A digital subscriber line access multiplexer (DSLAM, often pronounced DEE-slam) is a network device, often located in telephone exchanges, that connects multiple customer digital subscriber line (DSL) interfaces to a high-speed digital communications channel using multiplexing techniques.

4. The following term is not associted with DSL
a) DSLAM
b) CO
c) Splitter
d) CMTS
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in cable internet access.

5. HFC contains
a) Fibre cable
b) Coaxial cable
c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a telecommunications industry term for a broadband network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable.

6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for cable internet access
a) It is a shared broadcast medium
b) It includes HFCs
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet port
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in DSLAM
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted to digital signal by CMTS.

7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially switched ethernets.

8. StarBand provides
a) FTTH internet access
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access
d) Satellite access
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in the U.S. from 2000–2015.

9. Home Access is provided by
a) DSL
b) FTTP
c) Cable
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, Cable.

10. ONT is connected to splitter using
a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC
c) Optical cable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable.


Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Reference Models – 1

                                                                  Class – Four

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Reference Models – 1”.

1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers in Internet Protocol stack is Application, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.

2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model
a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer.

3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Both Session and Presentation layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that in OSI model two layers namely Presentation and Session layer have been added.

4. Application layer is implemented in
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and transport layer are also implemented in the end system.

5. Transport layer is implemented in
a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are implemented in the end system.

6. The functionalities of presentation layer includes
a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer include character-code translation, data conversion, data encryption and decryption, and data translation.

7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange is provided by
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end-user application processes. The session layer 5 is responsible for establishing managing synchronizing and terminating sessions.

8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end-user application processes.

9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Link layer
d) Session layer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is application layer. when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is application layer.

10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers to higher layer, headers get removed. Whereas when data packet move from higher layer to lower layers, headers are added.


Class -Five

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Reference Models – 2”.

1. OSI stands for
a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
c) optical service implementation
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model provides a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network, which also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting.

2. The OSI model has _______ layers.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers namely Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link and Physical layer.

3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
a) session layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and Session layer.

4. Which layer links the network support layers and user support layers
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
d) network layer
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are network support layers and session, presentation and application layers are user support layers.

5. Which address is used in an internet employing the TCP/IP protocols?
a) physical address and logical address
b) port address
c) specific address
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned above addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. All the addressing scheme, that is physical (MAC) and logical address, port address and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI model.

6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
a) prior to
b) after
c) simultaneous to
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was developed in the year 1984.

7. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?
a) network layer
b) transport layer
c) session layer
d) data link layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to establish a logical end to end connection between two system in a network. The protocols used in Transport layer is TCP and UDP.

8. Which address identifies a process on a host?
a) physical address
b) logical address
c) port address
d) specific address
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an Internet or other network message is to be forwarded when it arrives at a server.

9. Which layer provides the services to user?
a) application layer
b) session layer
c) presentation layer
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with application layer to create and send information to other computer or network.

10. Transmission data rate is decided by
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) data link layer
d) transport layer
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which deals with network cables or the standards in use like connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically the transmission speed is determined by the cables and connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that determines the transmission speed in network.


Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Cryptography

    CLASS-SIX

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Cryptography”.

 

1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
a) algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by
a) sender
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
View Answer

Answer: b

3. Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
a) rsa algorithm
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
c) electronic code book algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c

4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by
a) transpositional ciphers
b) substitution ciphers
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?
a) block cipher
b) stream cipher
c) bit cipher
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

6. Cryptanalysis is used
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
b) to increase the speed
c) to encrypt the data
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
b) transport layer security (TSL)
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
d) resource reservation protocol

View Answer 

Answer: b

8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol is provided by
a) A5/2 cipher
b) b5/4 cipher
c) b5/6 cipher
d) b5/8 cipher
View Answer

Answer: a

9. ElGamal encryption system is
a) symmetric key encryption algorithm
b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
c) not an encryption algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b

10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and returns
a) fixed size bit string
b) variable size bit string
c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit string
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a


Computer Networks Questions & Answers – Ports

PORTS(MCQs)

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ports”.

1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in
a) Persistent HTTP
b) Ponpersistent HTTP
c) Both Persistent HTTP and Ponpersistent HTTP
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: hypertext transfer protocol is used for sending multiple objects over TCP connection.

2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer
c) Network layer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP works on application layer.

3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) Uniform resource identifier
b) Unique resource locator
c) Unique resource identifier
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP resources are located by uniform resource identifier.

4. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) User datagram protocol
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Broader gateway protocol
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation:HTTP client requests by establishing TCP connection to a particular port on the server.

5. In HTTP pipelining
a) Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b) Multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a single TCP connection
c) Multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses in HTTP pipelining.

6. FTP server listens for connection on port number
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 21 is the port number of FTP.

7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using _________ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol
b) User datagram protocol
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Client contacts server using TCP as the transport protocol.

8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) Active mode
b) Passive mode
c) Both Active mode and Passive mode
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In passive mode the client initiates both the control and data connections.

9. The file transfer protocol is built on
a) Data centric architecture
b) Service oriented architecture
c) Client server architecture
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is built on client server architecture.

10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be done in
a) Stream mode
b) Block mode
c) Compressed mode
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Data transfer can be done in stream, block and compressed modes.


INTERNET:-

The Introduction   of   the Internet  has  led   to the creation Of  revolutionary  means of  sharing  knowledge  across  the globe.  But how much  knowledge  do we  possess  regarding the internet?  Do  we  have  a through  understanding   of, say The undertakings  that  characterize   in the cyberpoint9.com

SURFACE WEB 

DEEP WEB

DARK WEB

RED ROOMS 

MARIANA’S ROOM

 

 


 

Linus Torvalds

Linux Foundation
Android & Supercomputers won’t be possible without him

67% of internet, runs on Linux

The history of Linux began in 1991 with the commencement of a personal project by Finnish student Linus Torvalds to create a new free operating system kernel

Linus Benedict Torvalds is a Finnish–American software engineer who is the creator, and historically, the principal developer of the Linux kernel, which became the kernel for many Linux distributions and operating systems such as Android and Chrome OS

Born28 December 1969 (age 49 years), Helsinki, Finland
Full nameLinus Benedict Torvalds
SpouseTove Torvalds (m. 1997)
Talk is cheap. Show me the code.
Software is like sex: it’s better when it’s free.

Steve Jobs

Apple.inc

(1 April 1976, Cupertino, California, United States)

Revolutnied Computing Gadgets

Most artist & Designers won’t be existed without him.

Steven Paul Jobs was an American business magnate and investor. He was the chairman, chief executive officer, and co-founder of Apple Inc.; chairman and majority shareholder of Pixar; a member of The …Wikipedia

SpouseLaurene Powell (m. 1991–2011)
EducationReed College (1972–1974), MORE
I want to put a ding in the universe.
Design is not just what it looks like and feels like. Design is how it works.
Innovation distinguishes between a leader and a follower.

Bill Gates


Microsoft

(4 April 1975, Albuquerque, New Mexico, United States)

Made Computers possible for Everyone

he is the reason that most of you having a pc at home

 

William Henry Gates III is an American business magnate, investor, author, philanthropist, and humanitarian. He is best known as the principal founder of Microsoft Corporation. Wikipedia

Net worth9,780 crores USD (2019) Trending
Born28 October 1955 (age 63 years), Seattle, Washington, United States
SpouseMelinda Gates (m. 1994)
Your most unhappy customers are your greatest source of learning.
Success is a lousy teacher. It seduces smart people into thinking they can’t lose.
Life is not fair; get used to it.

 

 

 

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